Learning Forum

[Alex S]

Hello, I'm trying to understand how anyss mechanical handles a 2 parameter mooney rivlin material, where the incompressibility parameter is defined as 0. While I understand it is not ideal to have d1=0, I have seen in the literature a number of models doing so. Can anybody point me to somehwhere in the ansys documentation that can explain how this is handelled by ansys? 

[Ruturaj Gavali]

Hey Alex!

Please see if the following links are helpful:

11.6. Hyperelasticity (ansys.com)

4.6. Hyperelasticity (ansys.com)

8.15.6. Formulation and Parameters for a Hyper Elastic Material (ansys.com)

Thanks!

For more information, check out the following links:

Ansys Help

Ansys Learning Forum (Rules & Guidelines)

[Alex S]

Hello, 

Thank you for your response, I'm unable to access the links provided. I have tried the instructions found here:
/forum/forums/topic/how-to-access-the-ansys-online-help/ and I am still unable to access them. 

 

Many thanks,

 

Alex 

[Ashish Khemka]

Hi Alex,

The steps indicated in the link you shared should work. Can you please share snapshots of the issue you are facing?

Also, please refer to the following links as well:

Mooney-Rivlin Models (ansys.com)

Incomprehensibility parameter of hyperelastic material (ansys.com)

Why are all incompressibility parameters = 0 when I use ANSYS curve fitting?

Regards,

Ashish Khemka

[Alex S]

Hello, 

I have now managed to open the links, however I couldn't find an answer to what I was trying to find out from the documentation. In ansys if I define a mooney-rivlin hyperelastic material (per the equation below) with a d=0, this would be the result of the materal being incompresisble.

However in the mooney rivlin 2 parameter equation this would result in a calculation where 1 is divided by 0, which gives an undefined value. So my question is, what is ansys using inplace of the "undefined" value in this scenario?