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Miguel Sanchez
Subscriber

Hi, I understand the explanation but have a doubt about the particular case of the force being applied through a joint-force scoped to a traslational joint on a body cut in half by the symmetry plane (meaning that the joint free DoF and, therefore, the force line direction are aligned with/contained in the XZ symmetry plane), does the same reasoning still apply? Should the applied joint-force be also half of that in the full model?: 

Thanks.

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